The Postsecondary Education Readiness Test (PERT test) assesses a student's preparedness for college-level coursework in Florida. This test aids academic institutions in placing students into appropriate courses. It doesn't have a formal score but is adaptive, meaning the difficulty increases with each correct answer, which then influences the level of courses assigned. The test comprises 90 questions, with no time limit, and is divided into three sections: Mathematics, Writing, and Reading.
On this PERT practice test, we will cover different examples of questions from the test and its sections, including detailed explanations and solving tips – to help you better understand the nature of the exam. Continue below to start practicing, as we will begin with math.
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The PERT Math section includes 30 questions which vary in difficulty according to your success in previous questions. The main subjects in the section are Equations, Algebraic Expressions, Polynomials, Coordinate Planes, etc. Let's begin reviewing different questions in the section.
What is the equation of a line which cross the points: A(6,5) and B(-2,-3)?
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Answer & Explanation
The correct answer is (A).
The line equation is
where:
m = slope
n = the intersection point of the line and the y axis.
The slope can be found by the difference of the two points:
Use the set of given points:
and find the slope:
Hence:
Find the intersect point of the line with the y axis. Use the line equation formula:
and one of the points given in the problem.
For example, use
Therefore:
Accordingly, the correct answer is (A).
If you chose answer (B), review your calculations, paying attention to the signs. If you chose answer (C), review your calculations, especially the line equation definitions. If you chose answer (D), review your calculations, especially of n.
Use the image of the triangle and rectangle below to answer the question.
What is the length of the rectangle's diagonal (m)?
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Answer & Explanation
The correct answer is (D).
To solve this question, you need to perform the two main steps involved in calculating the missing sides using the Pythagorean theorem.
According to the theorem, a right-angled triangle (illustrated in the picture above) contains a hypotenuse square equal to the other two sides' sum. It can also be represented in the formula: (a^2+b^2=c^2)
Look at the right-angled triangle in the question. Two sides of it are given so you can find the hypotenuse using the Pythagorean theorem. Notice that the triangle's hypotenuse is also the rectangle's missing side, which will be valuable in the next step to find its diagonal. To find the hypotenuse, place the given values in the formula (mark the missing hypotenuse with h):
Note: since all rectangle angles are right angles, and the parallel sides are equal, the diagonal of the rectangle (\(m\)) creates two equal right-angled triangles.
With the Pythagorean theorem, you can use the given side length and the length of the missing side that you found, and calculate the triangle's hypotenuse, which is the rectangle's diagonal (m)
Therefore, the correct answer is (D).
Remember, calculators are not permitted in the real test! Make sure you are prepared to solve the math problems to the best of your ability.
The best way to prepare for your upcoming exam is to familiarize yourself with the exam format and questions. On our PERT Test PrepPack you will be able to access hundreds of sample questions with detailed explanations, as well as realistic simulations and expert tips.
Sarah wants to build eight identical wooden chairs for the new dinner table in her house. One pound of wood costs three and a half dollars. She uses sixteen and a half pounds to build three chairs.
How much will it cost her to build all the chairs she wants?
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The correct answer is (D).
16.5÷3=15÷3+1.5÷3=5+0.5=5.5 Pounds.
5.5×8=(5×8)+(0.5×8)=40+4=44 (Pounds).
44×3.5=(44×3)+(44×0.5)=(40×3)+(4×3)+(44÷2)=120+12+22=154 (Dollars).
Therefore, the correct answer is (D).
Look at the scores of the final English exam:
What is David's score, if the mean is 75?
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The correct answer is (B).
PERT Math Tip – Master the basics
While there are quite a few quick and effective solving techniques – none replace the importance of knowing the basic mathematic principles. In the question above, using Pythagoras's Equation is essential, as well as the geometrical understanding of the characteristics of a rectangle.
The PERT Reading section includes 30 questions which vary in difficulty according to your success in previous questions. The main subjects in the section are Summarization, Determining the Meaning of Words in Context, Recognizing Relationships of Sentences, Distinguishing Facts and Opinions, etc. You will be presented with a text, followed by one question or more. Let's begin reviewing different questions in the section.
Antonio Vivaldi was an 18th century Italian composer, violinist, teacher, and Catholic priest. He is recognized as one of the greatest Baroque composers, and his influence during his lifetime was widespread across Europe.
He is known mainly for composing many instrumental concertos for the violin and a variety of other instruments, as well as more than forty operas. His best-known work is a series of violin concertos known as The Four Seasons. Despite his prolific career, Vivaldi died in poverty.
From this passage, one may conclude that Vivaldi ______
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The correct answer is D.
The passage discusses Vivaldi’s work, influence, and for what he is known. However, the passage also states that “Vivaldi died in poverty,” implying that he did not reap monetary benefits for his art.
Little benefit is expected from climate change, but scientists have found at least one species that seems to be better off in a rapidly warming world. The Brown Argus butterfly has increased its range in England northward by about 50 miles over the past two decades. While not unexpected—many species have already responded to recent warming by moving—what makes the Brown Argus butterfly different is that the change in range has actually benefited the species.
In its caterpillar form, the Brown Argus feeds off wild geranium plants, but only in warmer summers—which is exactly what’s been happening in England and much of the rest of the world thanks to climate change. Over the past 20 years, the Brown Argus, which was considered scarce in the 1980s, has spread northward and now flourishes in much of southern England.
As David Roy of the Centre for Ecology and Hydrology in the U.K. put it, "The change in diet represents a change to the interactions between species—in this case between a butterfly and the plants that its caterpillars eat—caused by climate warming. Changes to the interactions between species are often predicted to alter the rate at which species shift their distribution in response to climate change; and now we have demonstrated this in nature."
But the Brown Argus butterfly is likely to be the exception to climate change, not the rule. Past periods of sudden climate change in the earth’s history have led to a reduction in biodiversity and even great extinction waves. If warming keeps up at the expected rate—and we’re doing little to slow it down—far more species will suffer.
On the other hand, mostly in regard to mourning days initiated by the people, such as the day of Princess Diana’s funeral in the UK, they reflect a spontaneous bout of pure grief, sometimes manifested in the closing of shops and banks and the cancellation of sports and theater and cinema showings.
Which of the following sentences contains an opinion?
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The correct answer is A.
This statement contains an opinion because it uses the phrase "seems to be better off," which is a subjective judgment about the species' situation rather than an objective fact.
• Answer B: This statement is a factual observation about the Brown Argus butterfly's diet and does not contain any subjective judgment or opinion.
• Answer C: This is a factual statement describing the geographical expansion of the butterfly's range over a specific time period. It is not an opinion.
• Answer D: This is another factual statement. It describes the butterfly's status in the 1980s and its subsequent spread northward, without expressing any opinion.
PERT Reading Tip – Read the questions first
This tip is probably more useful with a narrow time limit – but it is still quite useful in every reading question – either short or long. The basic is, that when you read the whole text first and then the question – you may be distracted and confused from the information you had just read. By starting from the question – you can continue to read the text, but this time with a knowledge of what you are looking for, different clues in the text can easily provide the answer. Continue below and attempt to use this tip for the following questions regarding the text above.
Answer the following question according to the passage above.
Which of the following statements best encompasses the main idea of the passage?
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The correct answer is C.
This statement best captures the main idea of the passage. It acknowledges the specific example of the Brown Argus butterfly benefiting from climate change, while also noting the generally harmful effects of climate change on other species.
• Answer A: While this is true, it does not fully capture the main idea of the passage, which also includes the impact of climate change on the butterfly and the broader context of climate change's effects on species.
• Answer B: This statement is accurate regarding the broader implications of climate change, but it does not focus on the specific example of the Brown Argus butterfly, which is central to the passage.
• Answer D: This is incorrect because the passage emphasizes that the Brown Argus butterfly is an exception and that overall, climate change is expected to be detrimental to most species.
Which of the following best describes the text structure of the first paragraph?
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The correct answer is D.
This structure explains the cause of an event and its effects. The first paragraph describes the cause (climate change) and its effect (the northward spread of the Brown Argus butterfly), making it a cause-effect structure.
• Answer A: Sequence refers to events or steps occurring in a specific order. The first paragraph does not present a sequence of events.
• Answer B: This structure presents a problem and then a solution. The first paragraph does not fit this structure as it does not present a problem followed by a solution.
• Answer C: This structure defines a concept and provides an example. The first paragraph does not fit this structure as it neither defines a term nor provides an example.
Get more practice questions and comprehensive explanations with our PERT Test PrepPack. Enhance your reading skills with test simulations and specified quizzes to improve your skills in vocabulary, sentence relationships, short and long paragraphs, long texts, and literature.
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While the PERT Reading section tests a variety of comprehension, critical, and verbal skills – all the questions are related to different texts. Therefore, it is essential to read, a lot, ahead of your test. Let's continue to the final section of the PERT – the Writing section.
The PERT Writing section includes 30 questions which vary in difficulty according to your success in previous questions. The main subjects in the section are Sustaining and Establishing Topics, Use of Conventions of Standard Written English, Conveying Complex Information, Word Choice Skills, Grammar, Spelling, Punctuation, etc. Let's begin reviewing different questions in the section.
Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
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The correct answer is B.
The subject and the verb in a sentence must always agree. If the subject is singular, the verb should be singular as well. Singular verbs usually end in -s or
-es.
If the subject is plural, the verb should be plural too. Plural verbs usually do not end in -s or -es.
The only sentence in which the subject and the verb agree is in answer (B). Both the subject (two boys) and the verb (go) are plural. Therefore, the correct answer is (B).
Which of the following sentences includes an example of vague pronoun use?
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The correct answer is A.
A pronoun is a word that refers to a specific noun in a given context, and its antecedent is the word that is being referred to. Vague pronoun use is when it is unclear what the antecedent is, as some multiple fitting subjects or objects could be what the pronoun in the sentence is referring to.
In the sentence in option A, the word “which” is a relative pronoun referring to something that “was the reason [Callie] was late for work.” It is unclear, however, which antecedent it is referring to—the fact that she “styled her hair in a French braid,” or “the heavy rain outside.” That is why it is considered vague pronoun use.
PERT Writing Tips:
Next are additional questions like in the PERT Writing section, where you can practice those tips and find additional explanations.
Which title of a work of art is capitalized correctly?
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The correct answer is A.
The major words in the titles of works of art (but not short prepositions or the articles "the," "a," or "an," if they are not the first word of the title) should always be capitalized. Therefore, the correct answer is (A).
Choose the word that is spelled correctly.
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The correct answer is A.
Answer (B) is incorrect as it contains a mistake: temparature should be temperature.
Answer (C) is incorrect as it contains a mistake: cataloge should be either catalogue or catalog.
Answer (D) is incorrect as it contains a mistake: phisician should be physician.
Practice questions in the format of the writing section of the PERT Test to be fully prepared! Our PrepPack includes two full-length simulations that will help you practice all different difficulty levels of the test. The PERT Practice Pack covers all three sections of the test. All the questions and simulations in our pack follow the same format as the PERT Test.
The Postsecondary Education Readiness Test (PERT) doesn't have a traditional "pass" or "fail" scoring system. Instead, it's used to determine your current academic skill level, particularly in Mathematics, Reading, and Writing, to place you in the appropriate college courses.
However, there are specific placement test score thresholds that indicate college readiness. These scores are not based solely on your success in the test but are based on percentiles of how you succeeded compared to other test-takers, normalized so different test forms can be compared. Here's a general idea of what this score range usually looks like:
These scores can vary slightly depending on the institution. It's important to check with the specific college or university you're interested in attending for their score requirements. Remember, if your scores are below these thresholds, it usually means you'll be placed in developmental courses to improve your skills before taking on college-level work (that means, for example, that a great majority of the students will take developmental mathematical courses).
The Postsecondary Education Readiness Test (PERT Test) is an assessment used by academic institutions in Florida to evaluate a student's readiness for college-level coursework. Unlike traditional tests, the PERT is adaptive, adjusting the difficulty of questions based on the student's performance as they progress. This helps determine the most suitable level of coursework for each student. The test consists of 90 questions across three sections: Mathematics, Writing, and Reading, and it is untimed, allowing students to work at their own pace. The PERT does not have a formal score, but the results play a crucial role in course placement.
Calculators are not generally allowed. The test is designed in a way that the math problems can be solved without a calculator.
However, for certain math questions, a pop-up calculator is provided on the computer screen within the test interface.
This means that when you take the PERT you can use this on-screen calculator for specific questions where it's deemed necessary, but you cannot bring your own calculator into the test.
The Postsecondary Education Readiness Test (PERT) is untimed, allowing test-takers to work through the questions at their own pace.
However, the average time to complete the test is usually around three hours.
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