ATI TEAS Science Practice Test (2024)

TEAS 7 is a test for students entering health science programs. The TEAS science practice test is very challenging. It has 50 questions and 60 minutes to complete them. This part of the science exam tests knowledge of human anatomy, biology, chemistry, and scientific reasoning. The TEAS science section reflects the different scientific skills needed for healthcare education.

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Free TEAS Science Practice Questions

Preparing for the TEAS 7 Science section with targeted practice questions is crucial for success on test day. The breadth and depth of scientific knowledge covered, spanning from human anatomy to chemistry and scientific reasoning, demands thorough preparation.

Download our free TEAS 7 Science study guide PDF. Work your way through these free TEAS science questions. Get Started for Free Download our free TEAS 7 Science study guide PDF. Work your way through these free TEAS science questions. [Download Free Study Guide]

The Human Anatomy and Physiology section is the largest and most comprehensive part. It covers multiple body systems, including respiratory, cardiovascular, digestive, nervous, muscular, reproductive, integumentary, endocrine, urinary, immune, and skeletal systems.

Let's look at an Anatomy and Physiology question:

Anatomy and Physiology:

Question no. 1 – skeletal system:

Which of the following is an irregularly shaped bone?

A) Sacrum

B) Fibula

C) Sternum

D) Incus

Answer & Explanation

The correct answer is A) Sacrum.

Let's break down each option with a detailed answer explanation:

A) Sacrum: This is the correct answer. The sacrum is an irregularly shaped bone at the base of the spine, between the two hip bones. It has a unique triangular shape and is formed by the fusion of five vertebrae. Its irregular shape allows it to fit perfectly between the hip bones and support the weight of the upper body.

B) Fibula: This is a long bone found in the lower leg, running parallel to the larger tibia. It has a regular, slender cylindrical shape typical of long bones.

C) Sternum: Also known as the breastbone, the sternum is a flat bone in the center of the chest. While it has a somewhat unique shape, it's generally classified as a flat bone rather than an irregular bone.

D) Incus: This is one of the three small bones found in the middle ear. While it has a distinctive anvil-like shape, it's classified as an auditory ossicle rather than an irregular bone due to its specialized function and location.

💡Tip For Students
When you study anatomy, relate the structure to its function. Here are some ways you can make your knowledge actionable and relevant: Study how different body systems interact with each other Practice explaining how the structure's form supports its function Apply your knowledge to case studies or real-life situations

💡Tip For Students

When you study anatomy, relate the structure to its function. Here are some ways you can make your knowledge actionable and relevant:

Study how different body systems interact with each other
Practice explaining how the structure's form supports its function
Apply your knowledge to case studies or real-life situations

Your reading comprehension is tested in the following question.

Question no. 2 – Renal System:

Which of the following statements regarding glucose renal transport is incorrect?

A) Glucose reabsorption depends on sodium reabsorption.

B) Increased glucose reabsorption subsequently increases renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate.

C) The urinary glucose excretion rate equals the subtraction of the filtration and secretion rates from the reabsorption rate.

D) The renal glucose reabsorption mechanism resembles intestinal glucose reabsorption in the jejunum.

Answer & Explanation

The correct answer is (C).

Let's break down each option with a detailed answer explanation:

To calculate glucose excretion rates, the following equation should be used: Urinary excretion rate = filtration rate– (reabsorption rate + secretion rate). In answer (C), the places of the filtration rate and reabsorption rate are changed.
Answer (A) describes a correct statement because glucose is transported through a symporter, conjugated to the transport of sodium. This is correct. Glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubule occurs via sodium-glucose cotransporters (SGLT1 and SGLT2), which rely on the sodium gradient maintained by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

Answer (B) presents a true statement. Increased glucose delivery to the tubules causes them to reabsorb excess sodium along with glucose. This, in turn, decreases delivery of sodium chloride to the macula densa, activating a tubuloglomerular feedback which subsequently increases the renal blood flow and GFR.

Answer (D) states a true statement, since both intestinal and renal glucose transports are mediated by the same type of symport proteins.

Therefore, answer (C) contains an incorrect statement- Glucose is not secreted by the renal tubules; it is only filtered and reabsorbed. Therefore, the correct relationship for urinary glucose excretion is the amount of glucose filtered minus the amount reabsorbed. There is no secretion of glucose into the tubular lumen to consider in this equation

💡Tip for students:
Common Misconception: Avoid confusing glucose transport with other substances that are secreted by the kidney. Remember: glucose is filtered and reabsorbed, but not secreted.

💡Tip for students:

Common Misconception:

Avoid confusing glucose transport with other substances that are secreted by the kidney. Remember: glucose is filtered and reabsorbed, but not secreted.

Embrace Your TEAS Exam Preparation Journey

Remember, each moment you spend preparing for the TEAS exam is an investment in your future as a compassionate and capable nurse. Embrace the journey, enjoy the learning process, and trust in your abilities.

In the next question, you must explain the physiological relevance of each factor. This question requires your ability to use English correctly.

Question no. 3 – Cardiovascular System:

Which of the following does not affect the binding affinity of oxygen to hemoglobin?

A) The levels of hemoglobin within the erythrocyte cells

B) The allosteric regulation of hemoglobin

C) The pH level

D) The partial pressure of oxygen

Answer & Explanation

The correct answer is (A).

The levels of hemoglobin within erythrocytes do not directly affect the binding affinity of oxygen to hemoglobin. The affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is mainly influenced by various physiological and chemical factors, but its concentration does not alter its intrinsic affinity for oxygen.

Let’s break down each option with a detailed answer explanation:

Why do the other options affect oxygen binding affinity:

B) The allosteric regulation of hemoglobin: This factor does affect oxygen binding affinity. Allosteric regulation involves the binding of molecules to sites other than the oxygen-binding site, which can alter hemoglobin's structure and its affinity for oxygen. For example, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is an allosteric regulator that shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen.

C) The pH level: pH significantly affects hemoglobin's oxygen affinity through the Bohr effect. As mentioned in the search results, "Decreases in pH shift the curve to the right, while increases shift the curve to the left". This means that in more acidic conditions (lower pH), hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases, facilitating oxygen release to tissues.

D) The partial pressure of oxygen: The partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) is a crucial factor in determining hemoglobin's oxygen saturation. The oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve describes the relationship between PaO2 and hemoglobin saturation. As PaO2 increases, more oxygen binds to hemoglobin until saturation is reached.

💡Tip for students:
Remember: Hemoglobin concentration affects total oxygen carried, not binding affinity Understand the direction of changes: Increased 2,3-DPG, lower pH → Decreased affinity (right shift of curve) Higher pH → Increased affinity (left shift of curve)

Chemistry:

Question no. 4 - acids and bases:

Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is added to acetic acid. Which of the following is expected to be the nature of the resulting solution?

A) Neutral

B) Basic

C) Depends on the amount of added NaOH

D) Depends on the acid’s pH prior to the addition of NaOH

Answer & Explanation

Answer -The correct answer is (B).

Let's break down each option with a detailed answer explanation:

The reaction can be represented by the following chemical equation:

NaOH+ CH₃COOH→ CH₃COONa + H₂O

In this reaction, sodium hydroxide, a strong base, reacts with acetic acid, a weak acid, to form sodium acetate (CH₃COONa) and water (H₂O).

A) Neutral:

This option would be correct if the strong base completely neutralized the weak acid, resulting in a neutral solution. However, because acetic acid is a weak acid and does not fully dissociate, the resulting solution will not be neutral.

B) Basic:

This is the correct answer. When NaOH is added to acetic acid, the resulting solution will be basic. This is because sodium acetate (CH₃COONa) is a salt that, when dissolved in water, hydrolyzes to form OH⁻ ions, making the solution basic.

C) Depends on the amount of added NaOH:

While the pH of the resulting solution can vary depending on the amount of NaOH added, the solution's nature (basic) remains the same if there is an excess of NaOH or equal moles of NaOH and acetic acid.

D) Depends on the acid’s pH prior to the addition of NaOH:

The initial pH of the acetic acid solution does not determine its final nature. The nature of the resulting solution depends on the products formed after the reaction, which will be basic due to the presence of sodium acetate

💡Tip for students:
When dealing with acid-base neutralization questions, remember the following: Always consider the relative amounts of acid and base involved. Strong acids and strong bases react completely, while weak acids and weak bases only partially dissociate. Familiarize yourself with the concept of titration curves, as they visually represent how pH changes as base is added to an acid (or vice versa).

💡Tip for students:

When dealing with acid-base neutralization questions, remember the following:

Always consider the relative amounts of acid and base involved.
Strong acids and strong bases react completely, while weak acids and weak bases only partially dissociate.
Familiarize yourself with the concept of titration curves, as they visually represent how pH changes as base is added to an acid (or vice versa).

Regular practice of scientific concepts, such as those covered in the TEAS test, can help reinforce your understanding and boost your TEAS test score by improving your ability to apply scientific principles to complex problems. Understanding chemical reactions is essential for providing safe, effective care and excelling in nursing education, including performing well on exams like the TEAS test.

Question no. 5 – chemical reactions:

The proposed mechanism for the reaction A → D consists of 3 steps. The reaction profile diagram that describes this mechanism is given below:

free teas science practice test

Which one of the following statements is true?

A) The overall reaction is endothermic.

B) The reaction B → C is the fastest step of the overall reaction.

C) The reaction B → C is the rate-determining step of the overall reaction.

D) There are two intermediates and three transition states in the overall reaction.

Answer & Explanation

The correct answer is D:

There are two intermediates and three transition states in the overall reaction.

Let's analyze each option and explain why D is correct:

A) The overall reaction is endothermic. This is incorrect. The reaction profile shows that the energy of the final product D is lower than the initial reactant A. This indicates an exothermic reaction, not endothermic.

B) The reaction B → C is the fastest step of the overall reaction. This is incorrect. The fastest step would be the one with the lowest activation energy barrier. From the diagram, the step B → C actually has the highest energy barrier, making it the slowest step, not the fastest.

C) The reaction B → C is the rate-determining step of the overall reaction. While this step does have the highest energy barrier, making it the slowest step, we can't definitively say it's the rate-determining step without more information about the reversibility of the steps. Therefore, this statement isn't necessarily true.

D) There are two intermediates and three transition states in the overall reaction. This is correct.

Let's break it down:

Intermediates: These are the relatively stable species between reactants and products. In the diagram, we see two local minima (B and C) between A and D. These represent the two intermediates.
Transition states: These are the highest energy points between stable species. We can see three peaks in the energy profile, which represent the three transition states.

The reaction profile clearly shows:

Starting material A
First transition state
First intermediate B
Second transition state (highest point)
Second intermediate C
Third transition state
Final product D

This matches exactly with the description in option D, making it the correct answer.

The TEAS Test assesses students' readiness for health science programs by evaluating their ability to apply mathematical concepts to scientific problems.

💡Tip for students:
When analyzing reaction profile diagrams, remember the "peaks and valleys" rule: Each peak represents a transition state Each valley represents a stable species (reactant, product, or intermediate) Count the peaks to find the number of transition states, and count the valleys between the reactant and product to find the number of intermediates. This quick visual analysis can help you quickly identify key features of the reaction mechanism without getting bogged down in details.

💡Tip for students:

When analyzing reaction profile diagrams, remember the "peaks and valleys" rule:

Each peak represents a transition state
Each valley represents a stable species (reactant, product, or intermediate)

Count the peaks to find the number of transition states, and count the valleys between the reactant and product to find the number of intermediates. This quick visual analysis can help you quickly identify key features of the reaction mechanism without getting bogged down in details.

The next section of the TEAS Science test is about biology. Biology is a broad natural science that encompasses the study of all living organisms and their interactions with each other and their environments.

Biology:

Question no. 6 – mitosis and meiosis

Which of the following occurs in mitosis but not in meiosis?

A) The mother cell divides once into two daughter cells

B) DNA replication

C) Cross-over in homologous chromosomes

D) Divides from a reproductive cell

Answer & Explanation

Answer –The correct answer is A

Let's break down each option with a detailed answer explanation:

A) The mother cell divides once into two daughter cells:

This occurs in mitosis but not in meiosis.
In mitosis, one cell division results in two daughter cells.
In meiosis, there are two cell divisions, resulting in four daughter cells.

B) DNA replication:

This occurs in both mitosis and meiosis.
DNA replication happens during the S phase of interphase, before either type of cell division begins.

C) Cross-over in homologous chromosomes:

This occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis.
Crossing over happens during prophase I of meiosis, contributing to genetic diversity.

D) Divides from a reproductive cell:

This is not a characteristic of either mitosis or meiosis.
Mitosis occurs in somatic (body) cells, while meiosis occurs in gamete-producing cells.

💡Tip for students:
When comparing processes like mitosis and meiosis, create a mental checklist of key events in each process. Focus on the unique aspects of each process rather than trying to memorize every detail. In this case, remembering that mitosis produces two daughter cells while meiosis produces four can help you quickly identify the correct answer. Also, pay attention to terms like "cross-over" which are specific to certain processes (in this case, meiosis).

💡Tip for students:

When comparing processes like mitosis and meiosis, create a mental checklist of key events in each process. Focus on the unique aspects of each process rather than trying to memorize every detail. In this case, remembering that mitosis produces two daughter cells while meiosis produces four can help you quickly identify the correct answer. Also, pay attention to terms like "cross-over" which are specific to certain processes (in this case, meiosis).

Knowledge of cellular biology enables nurses to provide more effective care across various aspects of health, from wound healing and infection control to comprehending genetic conditions. This ultimately enhances their ability to interpret patient conditions and deliver informed, high-quality nursing care.

Question no. 7 – cellular biology:

Which of the following is characteristic only to eukaryotes and not to prokaryotes?

A) Histones

B) Ribosomes

C) Genetic recombination

D) Flagella

Answer & Explanation

The correct answer is A) Histones.

Let's break down each option with a detailed answer and explanation:

A) Histones: This is the correct answer. Histones are proteins found in eukaryotic cells that help package DNA into a compact structure called chromatin. Prokaryotes do not have histones or a nucleus to contain their DNA.

B) Ribosomes: Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have ribosomes. These are essential for protein synthesis in all living cells.

C) Genetic recombination: This process occurs in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. It's a mechanism for exchanging genetic material and creating genetic diversity.

D) Flagella: While the structure and composition of flagella differ between eukaryotes and prokaryotes, both can possess these structures for movement.

Detailed answer explanations: The key to this question is identifying a feature unique to eukaryotes. Histones are the only option that fits this criterion. They play a crucial role in DNA organization within the eukaryotic nucleus, a structure absent in prokaryotes.

💡Tip for students:
When faced with a question asking about characteristics unique to one group, use the process of elimination. Go through each option and ask yourself, "Is this found only in the specified group, or does it exist in both?" This method can help you narrow down the choices even if you're not entirely sure about every option. Remember that shared features are often more common than unique ones, so look for the standout characteristic that doesn't apply to both groups.

💡Tip for students:

When faced with a question asking about characteristics unique to one group, use the process of elimination. Go through each option and ask yourself, "Is this found only in the specified group, or does it exist in both?" This method can help you narrow down the choices even if you're not entirely sure about every option. Remember that shared features are often more common than unique ones, so look for the standout characteristic that doesn't apply to both groups.

Let's continue to the scientific reasoning question type covered in this TEAS Science Free Practice Test. As nursing students, you'll encounter complex medical situations that require more than just memorization of facts. Scientific reasoning is a critical skill that will serve you well in your nursing career, enabling you to analyze data, evaluate evidence, and make informed decisions.

Scientific Reasoning:

Question no. 8 – the scientific method:

Scientists experimented to examine whether a new medicine they developed for reducing blood pressure is better than an old medicine that already exists in the market.
They divided their participants into four groups: the first group took the new medicine, the second group took the old medicine, the third group took a pill without any active ingredient, and the fourth group received no treatment.
The blood pressure of the four groups was measured before the treatment and again after two weeks of treatment, and the difference was calculated for each group.

Which statements regarding the experiment are true?

A) The dependent variable is the blood pressure after the treatment.

B) The purpose of the second group is to examine a placebo effect.

C) The independent variable is the treatment type.

D) The fourth group is a control group.

Answer & Explanation

Answer -Both C and D are true.

Let's break down each option with a detailed answer explanation:

A) The dependent variable is what the researchers measure to see the effect of the independent variable.

In this experiment, the researchers are measuring the change in blood pressure after the treatment. Therefore, the dependent variable is the blood pressure difference (before and after treatment), not just the blood pressure after the treatment.

Verdict: False

B) The purpose of the second group is to examine a placebo effect.

Explanation: The second group took the old medicine, not a placebo. The group taking a pill without any active ingredient (the third group) is the one used to examine the placebo effect.

Verdict: False

C) The independent variable is the treatment type.

Explanation: The independent variable is what the researchers manipulate to observe its effect on the dependent variable. In this case, the treatment type (new medicine, old medicine, placebo, or no treatment) is what is being manipulated.

Verdict: True

D) The fourth group is a control group.

Explanation: A control group is used as a baseline to compare the effects of the treatments. The fourth group, which received no treatment, serves as a control group to help determine the natural changes in blood pressure without any intervention.

Verdict: True

Summary

The true statements regarding the experiment are:

The independent variable is the treatment type.
The fourth group is a control group.

💡Tip for students
Tip for students for Analyzing Experiments Identify Variables: Independent Variable: What the experimenter changes (e.g., type of treatment). Dependent Variable: What is measured or observed (e.g., change in blood pressure). Understand Control Groups: Control groups are essential for establishing a baseline to compare the effects of treatments. They help determine if the observed effects are due to the treatment or other factors. Recognize Placebo Groups: Placebo groups help identify the psychological effects of taking a treatment. They receive a treatment with no active ingredient to measure the placebo effect. Analyze Experimental Design: Look at how participants are divided and what each group receives. This helps in understanding the purpose of each group and the overall design of the experiment. Focus on the Hypothesis: Understand the hypothesis being tested. This will guide you in identifying the purpose of different groups and the expected outcomes. By keeping these tips in mind, you can better analyze and understand the structure and purpose of scientific experiments.

💡Tip for students

Tip for students for Analyzing Experiments

Identify Variables:

Independent Variable: What the experimenter changes (e.g., type of treatment).
Dependent Variable: What is measured or observed (e.g., change in blood pressure).

Understand Control Groups:

Control groups are essential for establishing a baseline to compare the effects of treatments. They help determine if the observed effects are due to the treatment or other factors.

Recognize Placebo Groups:

Placebo groups help identify the psychological effects of taking a treatment. They receive a treatment with no active ingredient to measure the placebo effect.

Analyze Experimental Design:

Look at how participants are divided and what each group receives. This helps in understanding the purpose of each group and the overall design of the experiment.

Focus on the Hypothesis:

Understand the hypothesis being tested. This will guide you in identifying the purpose of different groups and the expected outcomes.

By keeping these tips in mind, you can better analyze and understand the structure and purpose of scientific experiments.

Question no. 9 – measurements and tools:

During a lab lesson, a chemistry student was asked to transfer exactly 2 milliliters of a solution from a test tube that contains 20 milliliters of the solution to another test tube. Which of the following tools should the student use?

A) Graduated cylinder

B) Thermometer

C) Volumetric pipette

D) Meter stick

Answer & Explanation

The correct answer is C.

Correct Answer: C) Volumetric pipette

Explanation:

Graduated Cylinder: While it can measure volumes, it's typically used for larger volumes and isn't as precise for small volumes like 2 mL.

Thermometer: This is used for measuring temperature, not volume.

Volumetric Pipette: This is the correct tool for precisely measuring and transferring small volumes of liquids. It's designed to deliver a specific volume with high accuracy.

Meter Stick: This is used for measuring length, not volume.

A volumetric pipette is the most appropriate tool for this task because:

It's designed for precise measurement of small liquid volumes.
It can accurately transfer exactly 2 mL of solution.
It's commonly used in chemistry labs for tasks requiring high precision.

Prepare For The TEAS Test

While the TEAS Science exam may be the largest component of the TEAS exam, it is certainly not the only one. Our experts at TestPrep-Online have compiled a comprehensive preparation course for all of the TEAS sections, which includes full TEAS Science Practice tests and a comprehensive set of study guides so you can better understand what the test includes.

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